Hi,
I'm trying to do a calculation that involves the "energy integral" defined by equations (3.139) in Aerts, JCD & Kurtz, and (4.47) in JCD's lecture notes:
Is this number available as default output in GYRE? I tried using 'E' in the summary output, but its value always seems to be one, at least in adiabatic calculations. I checked the definition in the source (since it's so easy when it's written so well!) and it looks like the same thing.
W
Definition of mode energies
- rhtownsend
- Site Admin
- Posts: 398
- Joined: Sun Mar 31, 2013 4:22 pm
Re: Definition of mode energies
Hi Warrick --
In fact, all eigenfunctions are normalized to have E = 1 --- hence your results!
What you might want to consider is the normalized inertia E_norm -- see eqn. 3.140 of Aerts+2010.
cheers,
RIch
In fact, all eigenfunctions are normalized to have E = 1 --- hence your results!
What you might want to consider is the normalized inertia E_norm -- see eqn. 3.140 of Aerts+2010.
cheers,
RIch
Re: Definition of mode energies
Rich,
That's what I figured. It seems a bit strange for this formula to be based on the norm of the eigenvector, given that it isn't uniquely normalized... I'll dig around in the notes to see what's going on. Is the value also always 1 in the non-adiabatic calculation?
W
That's what I figured. It seems a bit strange for this formula to be based on the norm of the eigenvector, given that it isn't uniquely normalized... I'll dig around in the notes to see what's going on. Is the value also always 1 in the non-adiabatic calculation?
W
- rhtownsend
- Site Admin
- Posts: 398
- Joined: Sun Mar 31, 2013 4:22 pm
Re: Definition of mode energies
Yes, it's always 1 -- see the mode_t_ routine in src/common/gyre_mode.fpp
cheers,
Rich
cheers,
Rich